Updated American Standard Version
Giving Bible readers what God said not what translators think God meant
The ancient Roman Empire had diverse literacy levels, revealing that literacy was more widespread than traditionally believed, impacting job functions and cultural contexts.
It is often claimed by many Bible scholars and historians that the ancient Israelites and the early Christians were illiterate. Is this true?
Most Bible scholars follow the secular scholars in that they see very little literacy in ancient times. Is that really the case? What does the evidence really say?
